Let me clarify: What if there is a resultant moment of $5\text< Nm>$ clockwise about a point on a body. If I calculated the moment about another random point in or outside the body, would I still get $5\text< Nm>$ clockwise as my value?
208k 48 48 gold badges 571 571 silver badges 2.3k 2.3k bronze badges asked Apr 21, 2014 at 3:14 2,137 12 12 gold badges 35 35 silver badges 50 50 bronze badgesAs said before, the answer is no(t always), but there is a simple law which can help you predict whether it will be the case or not, and how the torque is distributed across your solid*.
Using simple algebra and $\times$ distributivity, one can easily prove that
where $\vec$ is the resultant vector of all forces in presence. If this resultant is equal to zero, then the torque will be the same at any point on your solid ($\vec_>=\vec_>\:\forall \vec,\vec
$). This situation with $\vec\neq\vec$ is not exotic and you'll often encounter it in real life applications.
On the contrary, if $\lvert\vec\rvert$ is greater than zero, then the torque will be different depending on where you calculate it.
(*)In particular, torque is actually always unchanged by a translation parallel to $\vec$